Hey Mason! Thank you for the detailed response. My question wasn’t so much around: does FTO inhibition = m6a up, but asking how many degrees of separation are acceptable clinically. I.e - if Bisantrene is shown to be an FTO inhibitor in patients, then is it appropriate to claim (commercially, clinically) that Bisantrene upregulates m6a? This is in a context where we only measure pre and post Bisantrene FTO, not m6a levels. To that point, are we intending on measuring both in our lead in?
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