If you had to hold for 45 days before hand and the ex date was 3 March as per last year, then would there be any reason for an increase in the share price based on the dividend? If you bought tomorrow you wouldn't get the dividend based on that logic. Im not sure if that is right SB2000?
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3 | 61200 | 0.810 |
1 | 1000 | 0.795 |
2 | 3750 | 0.790 |
1 | 25000 | 0.780 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
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0.825 | 12273 | 1 |
0.835 | 63000 | 1 |
0.840 | 77625 | 1 |
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