It would be better if you approached this is a more civil manner.
I think plenty of people could use help with this (myself included).
So allow me to dumb this question down. Which of the below is more accurate? (Assuming the shares are held for over 12 months).
Lets use $1M in gains as an example.
1. You would pay half capital gains.
2. You would pay capital gains on half.
Aren’t they both the same? You’d be paying about $250k in tax in both examples right?
2021 BRN Discussion, page-8910
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