I need some clarification to ensure that i have correctly understood this rule. I purchased some shares on 29/4 (they are not preference shares and they were held 100% at risk), the ex date was 13/5. I wish to sell them on the 14/6. So not including the 29th and 14th - buy and sell days, I have held them for 45 days. Does this meet the rule and will I be entitled to the franking credits?
Thanks in advance.
