So say someone bought their shares back when price was circa $0.14-$0.31, and now say they were bought in a vehicle that prevented more than 20-25% of funds to be held in a single equity.
Are you suggesting that they ought to “sell at $5” so as to realise a significant capital gain only to then not be able to rebuy anywhere near even a fraction of the holding size when it retraced a bit and thus forego the future trailing dividend income on the now lost majority of holding?
Point is - horses for course fella and your horse may be very different to others. ($5000 exemption for a dividend payment limited at $11,666 - geez that’s not going to bring home the bacon for long is it …
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Last
$2.88 |
Change
0.210(7.87%) |
Mkt cap ! $8.672B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$2.76 | $2.88 | $2.74 | $151.4M | 53.48M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 8000 | $2.87 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$2.89 | 377420 | 16 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 8000 | 2.870 |
2 | 18200 | 2.860 |
4 | 108301 | 2.850 |
7 | 9788 | 2.840 |
12 | 431529 | 2.830 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
2.890 | 377420 | 16 |
2.900 | 281097 | 40 |
2.910 | 54554 | 8 |
2.920 | 38478 | 9 |
2.930 | 90154 | 8 |
Last trade - 16.10pm 12/09/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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