So say someone bought their shares back when price was circa $0.14-$0.31, and now say they were bought in a vehicle that prevented more than 20-25% of funds to be held in a single equity.
Are you suggesting that they ought to “sell at $5” so as to realise a significant capital gain only to then not be able to rebuy anywhere near even a fraction of the holding size when it retraced a bit and thus forego the future trailing dividend income on the now lost majority of holding?
Point is - horses for course fella and your horse may be very different to others. ($5000 exemption for a dividend payment limited at $11,666 - geez that’s not going to bring home the bacon for long is it …
5 days of down!, page-65
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Last
$2.98 |
Change
0.180(6.43%) |
Mkt cap ! $8.971B | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| $2.81 | $2.98 | $2.81 | $72.01M | 24.61M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 100000 | $2.95 |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| $2.98 | 319532 | 6 |
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| Last trade - 16.10pm 07/08/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
| PLS (ASX) Chart |