"The study shows they have "other financial assets" of $121k. Which they would liquidate before they sell properties.
Why? Because the entry and exit costs of property are much higher than other financial assets."
that is just blatantly wrong .. what if that asset is collateral for their property ... what if the "liquidation" value is far below the original value.
Please dont reference BIS .. go and see their track record prior GFC .. bunch of numbnuts ...
NOS so far you stand corrected on two points .. it took me 5 mins to find you charts with backing info that supported my arguments ... are you making stuff up here? (Rhetoric qu)
