I'm confused Jaded? If the options have an intrinsic value (in the money) before they expire doesn't it make sense to realise this value regardless of purchase price? It seems to me that a holder of KNLO who purchased them at the highest price last July of $0.40 would still rather convert to shares than extend their loss further. Am I missing something? Is it a tax thing?
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Last
9.4¢ |
Change
-0.004(4.08%) |
Mkt cap ! $42.67M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
9.6¢ | 9.9¢ | 9.3¢ | $26.37K | 275.1K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 27151 | 9.2¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
9.7¢ | 338382 | 1 |
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No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 27151 | 0.092 |
5 | 104020 | 0.091 |
4 | 55702 | 0.090 |
1 | 10000 | 0.086 |
2 | 37358 | 0.081 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.097 | 338382 | 1 |
0.099 | 10000 | 1 |
0.100 | 829704 | 4 |
0.105 | 315397 | 1 |
0.110 | 54365 | 3 |
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