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My valuation methodologies are anathema to mainstream...

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    My valuation methodologies are anathema to mainstream methodologies so I haven't posted. My DCF calculations gave me $55 last time I did the exercise for FY20 (but I put 0 weight on this).

    The GMV calculation has been a good rule of thumb, but IMO it is dangerous to use it. The reason it has been a good rule of thumb is that if you breakdown the essence of valuation you get a result close to 1x GMV.

    See mathematical explanation below:

    I tend to use PEG ratios for valuation:
    1) it allows me to do ongoing calculations as circumstances change in my head
    2) it has been empirically validated numerous times as one of the most accurate pricing models (Gleason, Cristi A., W. Bruce Johnson, and Haidan Li. "Valuation model use and the price target performance of sell‐side equity analysts." Contemporary Accounting Research 30.1 (2013): 80-115.)
    3) the fundamental basis for PEG ratios if using a two stage high growth DCF model is mathematically sound- see Damodaran (http://pages.stern.nyu.edu/~adamodar/New_Home_Page/invfables/peratio.htm)


    https://hotcopper.com.au/data/attachments/1930/1930977-d99c0e69d5c1f112d9cd2218ad79fc06.jpg


    https://hotcopper.com.au/data/attachments/1930/1930973-b92efe7935660948922ee00fb21c553f.jpg
    As you can see in a 2 stage model the PE multiple approximates the PEG ratio.

    Anyway I have said many times before mathematically assuming:
    1) net margin (NM) at maturity is approx 20% (this is likely based on AU EBITDA margins of 30% currently at close to maturity)
    2) Gross transaction margin (GTM%) of 5% (including other income/ bad debts collection)

    so PE ratio (PER) ~ growth rate (g) based on PEG modelling above


    PE= market cap / profit

    profit = revenue*net margin

    So PE = market cap/ (revenue * NM)

    PS (price/sales) = market cap/ revenue --> revenue = market cap/PS

    So PE = market cap/((market cap/PS) * NM) = 1/(1/PS)*NM = PS/NM
    So PE = PS/ net margin


    Theoretically then if g~100 then
    100= PS/0.2
    PS ~20

    PS = market cap/ revenue
    revenue= GMV * GTM
    revenue = GMV *0.05
    PS = market cap/ (GMV*0.05)
    20= market cap/ (GMV *0.05)
    GMV*0.05= market cap/20
    GMV*1/20= market cap/20
    GMV= market cap

    Anyway the crux of it is that the GMV is only a good approximation whilst g~100 which by circumstance it has been for the last couple of years.
 
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