Page 5 of the Appendix 4C explains the aggregated cash and financial asset movements which made up the $41.2m balance. In your model, you should ignore the $7.5m 'inflow' as it came in out of the 'financial asset' held. Your model also need to include the fx losses of $2.2m on the financial asset. Your variance of $9.7m is therefore explained by the $7.5m + $2.2m if you combined the effects of both 'cash at bank' and financial asset held.
Ann: 1PG Quarterly Commentary and Appendix 4C - 30 April 2016-1PG.AX, page-40
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