Are the BOD of ASX listed companies required to apply complicated maths or make "judgement calls" of how they apply dividends to a share on a differing proportional basis when they send their exisiting shareholders a dividend? No. They just issue a dividend as a % of no. of share held. Do intsos holding more than x number of shares get a different dividend per share than an individual holder holding "y "? Does retail investor "Mum" get a different dividend/share to retail investor "Dad" depending on their each individual number of shares held? What do you think would happen if ASX listed company BOD's decided to make arbitrary decisions on dividends like that??? So why do the ASX rules appear to allow them to do precisely that with access to a discount on a CR? NA and DYOR.
Are the BOD of ASX listed companies required to apply...
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