ah I see... gee I was under the impression the lot was/would be the same.
How do we even really know that the directors personal cash has been used to purchase such shares? What if it's some type of company distribution scheme where directors receive shares from and paid for by the company, the loop hole in itself is these are the equivalent receiving cash and immediately buying?
(just speculation)
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ah I see... gee I was under the impression the lot was/would be...
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Last
0.4¢ |
Change
0.001(33.3%) |
Mkt cap ! $3.882M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
0.4¢ | 0.4¢ | 0.4¢ | $424 | 116.3K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
31 | 23908060 | 0.3¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.4¢ | 16926626 | 17 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
31 | 23908060 | 0.003 |
16 | 50384166 | 0.002 |
13 | 86655000 | 0.001 |
0 | 0 | 0.000 |
0 | 0 | 0.000 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.004 | 16830293 | 15 |
0.005 | 12289159 | 10 |
0.006 | 11690602 | 9 |
0.007 | 2386818 | 3 |
0.008 | 369843 | 2 |
Last trade - 11.09am 03/05/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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