I understand that but extreme example;Buys 50.01% of all shares and then an offer comes then a takeover bid of 1cent (or less) per share is received from Hayaat. Shareholders vote and if he is allowed it would likely be 49.99% not to sell to 50.01% in favour of selling and motion is passed. This is why I asked IF he would be allowed to vote due to the conflict of interest.
If he isn't allowed to vote on it then a take over, merger, JV whatever it might be would be without any conflict of interest as there is a real case of CoI if something was to happen with him and Hayaat and if something was to eventuate.
If an offer came in from somewhere where there is no CoI then I can understand him voting.
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