Genuine question: does the thought process below make sense?
- A hedge fund heavily shorts a company.
- They decide to close their short position.
- To do this, they buy a large number of shares on the market.
- This pushes their holding above the 5% threshold, requiring them to declare themselves as substantial shareholders.
- They return the borrowed shares used for shorting to the original lenders.
- This lowers their holding below the 5% threshold, meaning they must declare they’ve ceased to be substantial shareholders.
Is this how it works? Could this scenario be happening?
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Genuine question: does the thought process below make sense?A...
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Last
11.0¢ |
Change
-0.005(4.35%) |
Mkt cap ! $65.56M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
11.0¢ | 11.5¢ | 10.5¢ | $156.7K | 1.428M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
6 | 96005 | 11.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
11.5¢ | 877101 | 12 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
6 | 96005 | 0.110 |
21 | 669363 | 0.105 |
57 | 4642891 | 0.100 |
3 | 101303 | 0.099 |
2 | 330000 | 0.098 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.115 | 877101 | 12 |
0.120 | 305987 | 5 |
0.125 | 441166 | 9 |
0.130 | 307500 | 5 |
0.135 | 983914 | 3 |
Last trade - 16.10pm 26/09/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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