It might have been shown to be the case somewhere else, but that doesn't quite make logical sense to me NS.
So in theory, they own 20% of MS ~ ok cool.
Which means then in theory (not that it works this way) they'd own 1/5th of the MS shares?
Wouldn't it also mean that any other major holders of MS would need to announce this info?
It might have been shown to be the case somewhere else, but that...
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