I suppose if eventual TO or JV is the buyer's objective (altho not the only poss reason), to do legally, they have to declare hand.
However, if the intention is to protect from poss hostile TO (most obvious I could think of), if went thru noms, maybe not?
Just inviting discussion on this possibility.
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Last
3.4¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $8.403M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
3.4¢ | 3.5¢ | 3.4¢ | $3.642K | 104.1K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 372421 | 3.4¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
3.5¢ | 232896 | 4 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 372421 | 0.034 |
1 | 250443 | 0.033 |
2 | 22091 | 0.032 |
3 | 82290 | 0.031 |
3 | 50666 | 0.030 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.035 | 232896 | 4 |
0.036 | 176830 | 3 |
0.037 | 65000 | 1 |
0.038 | 75000 | 1 |
0.039 | 70000 | 1 |
Last trade - 15.47pm 23/08/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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