Also has anybody looked at this 3Y notice closely under part 3,...

Also has anybody looked at this 3Y notice closely under part 3, it states and it has been answered as “Yes” against it:

“Were the interests in the securities or contracts detailed above traded during a +closed period where prior written clearance was required?”

So does this mean they are in a blackout period then why was this director able to sell if that is the case? Am I missing something here due to lack of understanding?
Anyone with more knowledge around this then would be interested in hearing their intrepretations on this.