A question......In this share sale process would it be likely...

A question......

In this share sale process would it be likely that someone/a broking house would underwrite the deal and therefore commit to either a firm price or a maximum price they would pay based on market movements and VWAP etc?

To follow on from this line of thinking, would that underwriter put a large brick wall sell order into the market to deter the market price from going above their sell order price to protect the upside/reduce the downside risk in their underwriting agreement?

I’m trying to think through if and how the share sale volume of 9m shares could be connected to the 9m sell order we see in the market. They are uncannily too similar to simply pass off as a coincidence without any analysis.

Another line of thought.....

Could AF have sold down some of his interests to:
(a) protect the pricing mechanisms in the above mentioned underwriting agreement and/or
(b) then step into the market to pick up the overhang from the share sale facility?

I don’t immediately lock in that these are all unrelated and discrete events, instead that they might somehow be connected.

Thoughts? Comments? Contrarian views?