They have basically said, in as many words, that they aren't using the borrowed shares method. Why would they use it when the collateral shares method is working well? So why do you go on and on about it like another one of the broken records here? I will be putting you on ignore pretty soon if you keep this up.
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Last
1.7¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $14.12M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
1.6¢ | 1.7¢ | 1.6¢ | $7.901K | 482.3K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 159511 | 1.6¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
2.0¢ | 62187 | 1 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 62287 | 0.016 |
5 | 814377 | 0.015 |
1 | 36000 | 0.014 |
3 | 1053346 | 0.012 |
2 | 850500 | 0.010 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.020 | 62187 | 1 |
0.022 | 298649 | 2 |
0.023 | 616153 | 2 |
0.024 | 1089497 | 4 |
0.025 | 1273120 | 4 |
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