But why are you comparing two different baseline measurements with each other? I am assuming both baselines were taken on enrollment prior to randomization to one of the two treatment orders (please correct me if I am wrong here). They should be similar (within the known variance of the disease). More proper is to compare either the first or second baseline with the outcome after treatment in my opinion - assuming this is how baselines were collected - I welcome any clarifications here
But why are you comparing two different baseline measurements...
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