"Why did MS and BofA sell the borrowed shares? Two reasons: firstly they were no longer confident to be able to make money by short-selling the shares..."
Are you aware that by selling the borrowed shares MS and BofA were, in fact short-selling. If they were not confident to be able to make money by shorting, then it stands to reason that they... should NOT... short-sell. With respect, your above comment doesn't make much sense.
"Note that the number of shares related to the derivatives is different from the number of shares lent to MS and BofA."
Given no separate numbers were articulated, how can you be so certain? How sure are you that the 85m shares offered for sale in the block trade represented the total number of shares lent by GFL and not simply the remaining shares that needed to be sold, after first allocating any parcels to interested clients (purchasers) among their respective client bases?
"Separate" was in the context of two separate agreements: one with MS and one MLI.
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