yes it's a 'return of capital' in one sense but surely (?) because it comes to us as a dividend, we are unable to treat it as a capital gain?
So therefore, no franking (a major benefit of return via a dividend is the franking) AND yet, because it's a dividend unable to 50% discount as might otherwise have been the case if held for >12 months?
So I could be wrong (certainly not an uncommon occurrence) but on the basis of the above, isn't this ultimately a (bad) blunder by company re the tax burden?
