Can someone please be kind enough to interpret below statement (genuine request) as I think it is an important post but am struggling to understand what it means (not sure if it's only me, by the way):
They (CR) are listing now in 014 but nearly 55 million have been dumped at market since CR. Almost there.
They are oversold now so the sell side is mounting and being loaded past 20x20 depth.
Not long now before they have sold them all.
I predicted with my crystal ball a 1.1 fall after cr with volume am dumps.
It has seen some super resistance with 14s constantly being loaded. But the am dumps are done for a reason and leave 1 or 2 shares to not go a point lower.
To use a very lame term out there. Lots of people throwing shade at co and sophs right now for this bs.
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Can someone please be kind enough to interpret below statement...
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