Never sure how this would work. From my understanding, you'd need an asymmetry in the degree to which the addition of removal of capital would impact the SP levels. Not sure how this would work.
As an illustrative example, if you could sell a one share and push the share price down by 5 cents, wouldn't the purchase of that same share raise the price by that same amount? So, if you pushed the SP down by selling, buying back in would raise it by the same amount, so your second share would be at the original price.
Maybe I've got this wrong.
I am constantly wondering how the infusion of cash into the market drives market cap. Is it a 1:1 relationship?
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Last
$1.33 |
Change
0.085(6.85%) |
Mkt cap ! $515.3M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$1.24 | $1.34 | $1.24 | $4.618M | 3.557M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 45000 | $1.32 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$1.33 | 3824 | 1 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 45000 | 1.320 |
1 | 20000 | 1.315 |
1 | 19083 | 1.310 |
1 | 6881 | 1.305 |
3 | 17500 | 1.300 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
1.325 | 3824 | 1 |
1.335 | 36509 | 4 |
1.340 | 28394 | 3 |
1.345 | 4850 | 2 |
1.350 | 20650 | 2 |
Last trade - 16.10pm 05/07/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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