'I think I answered your question in terms of what the probability is of the next trial returning a similar result i.e. 98.4 times out of 100 you'll get the same result for the total population.. and in the sub-group. 99.99 times out of 100 you'll get the same result.'
This is what I was trying to understand
I didn't think you could flip the hypothesis probability.
Ie- 1.4% likely hood of it being chance did not necessarily convert to the there was of 98.4% of getting same result.
If you are correct that is brilliant. Far more significant than I first realised.
Thanks for your time.
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