Great pick up.. I think part of this explanation of the variance is in Note 14 of the financial statements. The difference between basic and diluted earnings.
In other words it is very confusing and requires a lot more calculations in its process.
If we work backwards for the presented EPS of 0.8, then
4,275,161,851 * 0.008 = $34,201,294 of adjusted earnings (but that doesn't correspond to anything in particular within the accounts).
Or somehow the 15,096,105 / 0.008 = 1,887,013,125 equivalent shares on issue related to diluted EPS. This might relate to the second paragraph (dilutive effect of interest) or third paragraph about the bonus element. These might have something to do with the way earnings are reported in US?
(Or something to do with their 43+% of their associated company). .35/.8?
The third alternative is with the 0.35 and therefore a major ballsup if this is the case... 3 + 5 = 8
Great pick up.. I think part of this explanation of the variance...
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