We have just sold a property (rented out for the full term of ownership 4 years) and are liable for capital gains.
While we were collecting rent, we were renting ourselves.
The rental house was the only house in my wives name.
My question is the only way we could of rented it out and produced a income was for us to be renting therefore can we claim our rent we paid as an expense.
My second question is since my wife only had that house in her name can we say that it was her house of residence. We did claim all the rental expenses during all 4 years of ownership.
