This is an example I would like to show you guys since the...

This is an example I would like to show you guys since the closing bell already




So put it this way, a person (trader) got at least 80 000 shares or more of PGH and plenty of cash. The person first put 2 orders of buy at 40 000 shares at 0.685 cents.

It will cost the person one order of 40 000 * 0.685 cents = $27 400

Then the person placed the sell order with the volumes of 40 369 at 0.695 cents

So let's do the math

40 000 shares * 0.685 cents = $27 400
40 000 shares * 0.695 cents = $27 800

The person minimum make $400 profit
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So why is the 40 369 shares of sell order? This is where it got complex. The person got at least 80 k shares or more, so I am assuming he wanted to sell extra 369 shares?

So let us ignore 40 k shares example above, here is the real calculation begins. The truth is he wanted to set buy order of
BUY
40 369 shares * .685 = $27 652.77

Then the person wanted to sell at

40 369* .695 = $28 056.45

The person makes the profit of $403.68

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Now where is the 369 shares coming from?

369 shares * 0.685 = $252.77

So if the person make $403.68 profit minus $252.77 for 369 shares the person got around $150.91 to cover for brokerage fees for buy and sell order plus any difference associate with middle price between 69 cents and 69.5 cents.

Overall, the person accumulate extra 369 shares. Welcome to AI technology I suppose. Just guessing here

If it fall to 68 cents, 40369 shares * 0.68 = $27 450.92. The person initial cost is $27652.77. So the person lost $201.85

Summary, if the person invested $27 652.77 in PGH shares at 68.5 cents. If it rises to 69.5 cents, the person makes $403.68 profits. If it fall to Ruffy's hand at 68 cents, the personal lost $201.85.


This is my observation by the closing bell.