I am making the presumption that this occurred if they trade using stop losses which I understand that they do. If their stop/loss was at 10/15% of he price on the day before the Brexit, surely they would have automatically sold out after the announcement. However, at the end of the day, it all comes down to what they paid for HGG and whether their stop loss still included a small profit. Does this make sense?
I am making the presumption that this occurred if they trade...
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Last
63.5¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $189.0M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 63.0¢ | 64.0¢ | 63.0¢ | $321.0K | 506.9K |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 3 | 19936 | 63.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 64.0¢ | 69656 | 3 |
View Market Depth
| Last trade - 15.57pm 26/06/2025 (20 minute delay) ? |
| CDM (ASX) Chart |