In your original workings, when you get your enterprise value by extrapolating out by your multiples, wouldn't you then add back the debt (rather than subtracting again) to get your market capitalisation (recognise this isn't shareholder equity), then divide it by the number of shares to get to what you think is your target price?? Wouldn't $480m become $530m to give share price of $2.65? Obviously applying different multiples will affect this, but have I got the above wrong.
@jacko1973,
Remember: Enterprise Value = Market Value of the Equity (or Market Cap) + Net Debt
So, in this exercise I started with an assumed multiple of EBITDA to arrive at the EV.
Then, in order to obtain what I want to know, i.e., the Market Cap, per the formula above, I need to DEDUCT Net Debt.
And then that answer I divide by Share on Issue to obtain a per share valuation.
NB. Market Cap and Shareholder Equity (as reported in the company's balance sheet are not the same thing, but are related - based on finance theory, at least - insofar as the level of ROE generated by a company)
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