Hi all,
Can some perhaps please explain why Pax is an investible drug given these P2 results sit roughly in the middle of Tem in MGMT UNMETHYLATED GBM across recent studies over the last 15ish years, as per below table from Hegi and Stupo, Neuro-Oncology 17(11), 1425–1427, 2015.,
Which is somewhat backed up by Alnahhas et al. metaanalysis of Tem in MGMT UNMETHYLATED GBM in 2020 in Neuro-Oncology Advances 2(1), 1–7, 2020. The finding there is "
The median OS for patients with unmethylated GBM treated with RT/TMZ pooled from 5 phase III studies(N = 655) was 14.11 months (95% confidence interval [CI], 13.18–15.04)"
So Pax benefit a lot less than presented by the company?
What am I missing here?
Cheers.
