I'm no corporate lawyer and wouldn't know if it was or wasn't illegal. What would you think is the reason for there being ~7.5% better deal by accepting the offer (6.925c equiv) versus selling on market (6.4c)? For weeks these prices had been tracking together (MIN/1300 = NWE +or -), but this week they have diverged. And the deal got worse this week, with no dividend post 28 Feb.
I'm no corporate lawyer and wouldn't know if it was or wasn't...
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