A curious thought here.
If T20 > 70% shares on issue, leaving only 30% in free float, then what is the real purpose of SJ's recent HK trip supposedly to garner even more investment support from persons of high net worth?
Let's assume SJ's trip is very successful and in a couple of months' time, T30 (yes, T30) > 85% shares on issue, thereby creating illiquid BDR shares. How is the final illiquid effect different to a share conso of 10:1? Not that I'm advocating for share conso.
Furthermore, if SJ's total pay packet is sp based, then a situation of illiquidity might be remuneratively self-defeating for him. Just insomniac and wondering. R.
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A curious thought here. If T20 > 70% shares on issue, leaving...
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