My original point was that just because someone has GI GI...

My original point was that just because someone has GI GI symptoms, it doesn’t necessarily mean that they’ll spread the virus via the faecal-oral route. In any case, I’ve had a look around and although most of the information surrounding the current outbreak is primarily based on news reports, I did find one article published in the Lancet (https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(20)30154-9/fulltext).

This part is especially interesting:
“Interestingly, the two younger adults (patients 3 and 4) initially had diarrhoea, which was also reported in 10·6% (15 of 142) of our SARS patients at presentation;18 however, the subsequent faecal samples of patients 3 and 4 that were collected 9–10 days after symptom onset were negative for the virus after the diarrhoea had long subsided.”

Seems like there is patchy concrete evidence that the virus is spread in this manner, but definitely a strong suggestion. In any case, I was wrong in my original post to brush off the potential role of faecal-oral transmission.