The CAPM formula represents an expected rate of return from the risk free rate plus risk (a.k.a. Beta) multiplied by the expected return on the market less the risk free rate.
Would you be kind enough to explain how these elements can be drawn from ZIPs statistics to reach an alpha conclusion, in view of the fact that alpha could be interpreted as superior performance in your portfolio?
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Last
$2.72 |
Change
0.020(0.74%) |
Mkt cap ! $3.551B |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
$2.64 | $2.74 | $2.61 | $24.57M | 9.147M |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 14000 | $2.71 |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
$2.72 | 80225 | 7 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
3 | 14000 | 2.710 |
7 | 44997 | 2.700 |
5 | 91606 | 2.690 |
12 | 325003 | 2.680 |
7 | 174460 | 2.670 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
2.720 | 80225 | 7 |
2.730 | 576174 | 18 |
2.740 | 308296 | 14 |
2.750 | 322819 | 35 |
2.760 | 231402 | 10 |
Last trade - 16.10pm 08/10/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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