Trying to understand these points:
- Dox group (patient population) had higher lines of prior therapy
- Dox group were given excessive dosage compared to Bis group
1.Couldn’t this both be the reasons for excessive cardio toxicity and severe AEs in Dox group vs lower dose of Bis group?
2. How do we know that Bis group would have better efficacy while retaining higher safety than Dox if dosed optimally?
Without cherry-picking the info, how would you conclude based on this data? Apologies if you have already posted this but first time I have read the paper and hence asking. Thanks.
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