Let me see if I have interpreted what you guys are saying...

Let me see if I have interpreted what you guys are saying correctly or have I got this completely wrong?

1 Instead of raising 2-3M through Capital raising, RHT have chosen to use Acuity to help fund some cash via Collateral shares. This avoids share dilution.
2. 20M new shares will be traded on the market by Acuity. Would these new shares to be issued like a capital raise or are the shares owned by RHT ?

3. So if Acuity is selling 20M shares, say at 12c ($2.4M), RHT has access to $2.4M cash to use.
The effect is like a line of credit, except Acuity holds the shares as collateral?

or does it go more like Acuity gives RHT $2.4M expecting to be able to sell each share for 12c each ?

4. RHT then buys back the shares from Acuity?

"Acuity is selling shares on behalf of RHT based on the specified paramaters given by RHT (min price, max shares). They cant sell shares they dont own and you cant borrow shares in RHT hence the need for the collateral shares. Acuity is actually selling these shares on behalf on RHT. RHT then issues these sold shares back to acuity after the evaluation period is over, giving acuity 20m shares capital again."

The last sentence has me confused.