Speaking generally, say company X is owned 40% by shareholder A, 31% by shareholder B, 20% by shareholder C and 9 % by the rest.
Then Shareholder A is for whatever reason, perhaps quite validly precluded from voting at a meeting.
Shareholder B who owned 30%, suddenly has 51% of the voting shares.
Precluding shareholder A might be totally valid but if it automatically gives B control, there has to be something wrong with that.
Speaking generally, say company X is owned 40% by shareholder...
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Mkt cap ! $60.16M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
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| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
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