No, a p-value of 0.05 is accepted as statistically significant. IMC's is 0.399. I believe this means that there is weak to no evidence to suggest IMC's pill behaves differently from a placebo.
I'm not an expert but I believe what that is saying in effect is, if you have:
30 people on placebo and 11 got diarrhoea, and
30 people on IMC's drug and 7 got diarrhoea,
then you don't really know if the 4 less people getting diarrhoea was really due to the drug being effective, or just within the bounds of what you'd expect of natural variation.
I don't have a background in statistics so maybe someone can explain this better than I can, but I believe that's what a non-statistically significant p-value is saying in this case.
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