Please show me where in my example I was talking about averaging down!
I thought I was talking about increasing the number of shares in one's holding without any outlay of extra $$$ and /or reducing one's capital exposure by trading accordingly. This than could have the effect that one's average buy-in price reduces.
However I understand your frustration because not only did you have to take the massive drawdown from 45c, but no this explanation seems to have gone straight over your head too. Don't worry though, as per the funding update announcement it's only going to be weeks before you can expect something to happen in that direction!
I wish you guys would read posts here to understand, rather than just to respond.
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Last
9.8¢ |
Change
0.000(0.00%) |
Mkt cap ! $65.78M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
9.8¢ | 9.8¢ | 9.8¢ | $12 | 125 |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 370416 | 9.6¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
9.9¢ | 101969 | 2 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 370416 | 0.096 |
3 | 107238 | 0.095 |
1 | 83946 | 0.092 |
3 | 325000 | 0.090 |
1 | 50000 | 0.085 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.099 | 101969 | 2 |
0.100 | 150000 | 2 |
0.105 | 99813 | 1 |
0.110 | 20265 | 3 |
0.115 | 120000 | 2 |
Last trade - 10.13am 23/08/2024 (20 minute delay) ? |
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