How can you say the results are modest when patients treated with a drug intended to prevent a rise in cytokines, showed complete absence of a rise in cytokines?? How could the results have been better?
What am I missing?
(And saying "probably the same level of expertise you bring to the table" is not an answer. It wasn't a loaded question, why not answer it? Your statement "I’m unconvinced it’ll do anything in Covid or septic shock" calls for either a discussion of the data or a statement of your expertise.)
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