Another shout of praise goes up to Jehovah!, page-1179

Mr G and with all due respect, your dancing around and it's looking very much like the Tango

Wotsup , you have gone back to believing God spoke things into existence.

Mr G, back YOUR truck up and DO the likes of your own words, let the scriptures speak.
They are the likes of, AND GOD SAID, let there be light and there was light.

So no, I haven't gone back or forth, just stayed on the one path that the scriptures speak, we cannot assume and go adding.

That Mr G and John, was to first -> Mal 3:1 - Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith Yahweh of hosts.
Sure enough, Jesus suddenly appears, is mentioned, first time in 1:14.

Isa tells us, make the highway Straight,.............truth, and as in John, what is, what was etc and this is done all the way through the first 13 verses and then, the SUDDEN appearance, mention of Jesus in 1;14.

The Word in John 1:1 is a person, not something that God said.

What you all seem to want to ignore is the likes of, the word of Yahweh said unto me and the Spirit of Yahweh said unto me.
They took both of those expression as being, God direct and in some or one case for example, "Now I have seen your Face".
There in itself, they have personified The Word and that being Yawweh.

I have been telling you this, over and over and the person IS THE God.
In beginning was the Word.........word is Now the lead in subject -> and the Word was with The God............the God now defined, IS now the lead in subject -> And God was the Word.
(The God is already defined, clarified, hence now just God and not the God as first ref)
( the -> denoting one or more people or things already mentioned or assumed to be common knowledge).


1:2 the Word is now the lead in subject -> The same, (this, it, the word) was in the beginning with the God.
(And just to clarify again, recap, summary of 1:1, "the God" is ref again)

This part of John, is outside of creation, God and his plan, reason, thought as per Logos meanings.
Just like his wisdom is clearly personalized in Proverb, even so here with God and the Word.

How can it be with him and him;
Tutus 1:2 - In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;
2 Tim 1:9 - Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began,

Part of the plan, also known as the word of life, was for the Gens creation, but the plan for a Jesus, was first.
Much more of the plan, the Word, came in Jesus, but over many, many years of being raised by God.

John 1;1-2 establishes that the Word and The God are one in the same.
1:3 then references Word and God as Him.
But, it is STILL in reference to God's NOW spoken word;

All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
This could very well have been written as the following;
All things were made by him; (this, it, the word) and without him (this it, the word) was not any thing made that was made.

WHY -> Psa 33:6 & 9 - By the word of Yahweh were the heavens made; and all the host of them by the breath of his mouth.
For he spake, and it was done; he commanded, and it stood fast.
Isa 44:24 - Thus saith Yahweh, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I Yahweh that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;


The ''him'' here is the person called the''Word'' at John 1:1. God gave the orders and Jesus obeyed.

Obeyed and said, let there be light = No way in God's name can you concoct that.

So, your now telling us, Not to let the scriptures speak ?????????????


(John 1:10, 11) He was in the world, and the world came into existence through him, but the world did not know him.  He came to his own home, but his own people did not accept him.
There is no suggestion God was ''in the world''. It was Jesus they ''did not accept''.

It says exactly that, as the first 13 verses are all about the Almighty God and Father as per expected would be, re Mal 3:1.
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

Remember the beginning of John, subject centering around the word, now the Word and God, defined as He and Him.
However, as the whole theme of the Bible is centered around word, these verse could very well be referenced as follows;

He (this, it, the word) was in the world, and the world was made throught him (this, it, the word), and the world knew him (this, it, the word) not.
He (this, it, the word) came unto his own, and his own received him (this, it, the word) not.

No you might say, well,..............you go and have a close examination of the word options here, from the Greek.
(some fine tuning req).



world was made throught him -> the above and again Isa 44:24 shows, the world was made through God and not Jesus, ruling these verse out as being, ref to Jesus.
To BOOT, Jesus is Not yet flesh in this part of the opener to John and you cannot brush this off.

He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

Goodness me Mr G, God came to his own for over 4,000 years and look at what that resulted in.
Heb 1:1 - God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

To boot -> They were not Jesus's;
John 10:27 - But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.
My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

So his own, Jesus's, heard him and followed him.

John 17:6 - I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.

And you were saying????????????????