Getting back to the AOP T/O, as some have said, RMS would have done their DD and, presumably, known GOR owned 19.9%. So, could it be that RMS did this, intending to actually fail, but to instead goad GOR into buying AOP and thereby tying their hands as it were?
Could RMS have another target in mind and just wanted to make sure GOR were not going to be around to be a competitor when they bid for it? - obviously it would be something GOR may have bid for otherwise no point 'forcing' their hand.
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$2.19 |
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Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
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No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
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Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
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9 | 104712 | 2.170 |
2 | 38148 | 2.160 |
4 | 73497 | 2.150 |
3 | 42542 | 2.140 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
2.190 | 2288 | 1 |
2.200 | 266788 | 18 |
2.210 | 100232 | 6 |
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2.230 | 33239 | 4 |
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