Two question relating to the (possible) terms of the P&G agreement
1. Can anybody advise whether there is (or is likely to be) a cost recovery element in the P&G royalty agreement. (Thought I'd heard this idea mentioned here before but couldn't find)
Ie. Are royalties owing to OBJ, firstly applied to recovery of product development costs incurred by P&G in the development of the wand?
2. How are people interpreting 'Revenues are principally from P&G for SK-II launches..."
Would this be milestone based? If so, the implication is that revenues (or cashflows in this instance) are still NOT reflective of royalties on units sold?
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