Haven't had time to digest it all and compare with previous literature. In MITCI, it looks like the key result is the BORR (CR+PR) for Prior anti-PD1 therapy (n=13) reporting 23.1%. I've also noticed that they've omitted any reference to the overall response rate for the intention-to-treat (ITT) population (which was 50%). Not sure how to interpret that. All the other aspects seem fine: DCR - check. Safety profile - check.
Does anyone know if this is a novel result? Is this something that hasn't been previously researched? (I guess in the context of Amgen's ASCO result on T-Vec - it does to some extent)
In KEYNOTE-200, seems like it's another poster providing methodological details similar to previous posters. Overall, nothing really jumps out at me as game changing. Am I missing anything?
VLA Price at posting:
$1.05 Sentiment: None Disclosure: Held
