australian houses 'world's least affordable', page-28

Willcomp if someone buys a property outright, they have no mortgage. So by your measure, said property is infinitely affordable, no matter how much it cost, and no matter what the persons income was. So to answer your question, no, I don't get it. It's a worthless metric.

You think I talk about the median and average without knowing how they're derived? Perhaps that's your posting style, but not for me. Show me where the average is used to derive an affordability ratio, please indulge me. Or is it a case of everyone else has it wrong, where you have it right?

Answer me this - if the value of every property goes up, and the median goes down, has property grown more or less expensive for the typical buyer? Median is not a perfect measure, but average is hardly better given what we know of typical income and price distributions.