I gave you the info from THE GREEK from which OUR Bibles are translated AND this said "by" comes from the Greek word DIA and there is ZERO options to use "by" as it is NOT an OPTION.
Wotsup
If "by" is not an option then why did you use it in a quote from the KJV?
Why is there one rule for you and another for everybody else?
Still it makes no difference to me, my point is that the exact same word from the Greek word DIA is used in both verses.
All things were made by/through the Word in John 1;3
All things were made by/ through Jesus in Col :16
The Word is Jesus and Jesus is the Word
KJV 1:26And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them
Wotsup , the "he" in verse 27 is the "us and our" in verse 26
Wotsup I know you like to quote how Moses was an Elohim
but I suggest you read and understand why Moses was as god and who he was a god too
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