"1 Timothy 3:16 says clearly "God was manifest in the flesh;" but Lamsa wrongly wrote, "it [the "divine mystery"] is revealed in the flesh." Jesus wasn't a mystery with a body. He was, and is, God Himself."
If you check the Interlinear, it does Not say "God was manifested in the flesh"
3:16 - And confessedly, great is the godliness mystery: Who (which, that, what, it) manifested in flesh...................
Hence it was the Godliness that was manifested in the MAN Jesus who made it very clear, he was doing the God and Fathers will.
God the Father who is the Holy Spirit, dwelt in Jesus without measure John 3:34, John 14:10 AND;
Acts 2:22 - Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did through him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:
Not to mention -> Deu 18:18 - I will raise up for them a prophet from among their countrymen like you, and I will put My words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them everything that I command him.
(part of the development of this raising Luke 2:40, 52).
So the "godliness mystery" is not referring to Jesus directly, but what was in him and what he was raised in - the godliness mystery.
So, in this verse, Lamsa pretty much has it right, according to the overall of the Bible and the correct words in the verse.
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Even if you go with -> "God was manifest in the flesh;", keep in mind that Jesus referred to himself as a Temple and the following physical event, is simply a foreshadow of the Spiritual to come.
Ex 40:34 - Then a cloud covered the tent of the congregation, and the glory of Yehowah filled the tabernacle.
Who does Jesus say Yehowah here is = his quoting of the OT -> Hear, Israel: Yehowah our God is One Yehowah, the Father that he references as the only true God when he was here in John 17:3.
Did Yehowah God become this "Tent/Temple" Jesus, when he entered = NO.
What also, like Ex 40:34 entered the Temple Jesus = John 17:22 - And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
That is the basics of the meaning of John 1:14................and we beheld the glory of him, glory as only begotten by the side of the Father, full of grace and truth -> the word of the Fathers without measure.
"Truth" = the glory being spoken of, is the word of God -> John 17:8 - For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came forth from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me.
And by accepting these words/glory in their full context and meaning, you become one even as they are one 17:22, = I and the Father are one's is interpreted in 17:22 = One in word which naturally brings unity into one.
"forth" = out of the mouth of the Father (to the Angle, to Mary) Isa 55:10, 11 and sent into the world after his Baptism ex John 17:18.
So there you have it zbusc, an alternative view, actually based on the Bibles words and overall theme.
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