I find it hard to understand why an option holder would not have sold the equivalent number of shares,
waited two days for settlement and then sent a cheque to the company and taken up the options at 2 cents.
It did not involve any further outlay of "hard earned cash"
You may have banked a few sheckles if you timed it right.
And it would have helped the company in which you invested.
Is it the dilution that bothers folks?
Maybe I'm missing something here?
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Last
2.1¢ |
Change
-0.002(8.70%) |
Mkt cap ! $74.14M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
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Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
25 | 4412996 | 2.1¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
2.2¢ | 476302 | 6 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
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24 | 4153481 | 0.021 |
25 | 3595595 | 0.020 |
10 | 823942 | 0.019 |
5 | 934444 | 0.018 |
5 | 581529 | 0.017 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.022 | 793762 | 7 |
0.023 | 2977108 | 5 |
0.024 | 3752339 | 14 |
0.025 | 4267152 | 6 |
0.026 | 1085602 | 6 |
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