I find it hard to understand why an option holder would not have sold the equivalent number of shares,
waited two days for settlement and then sent a cheque to the company and taken up the options at 2 cents.
It did not involve any further outlay of "hard earned cash"
You may have banked a few sheckles if you timed it right.
And it would have helped the company in which you invested.
Is it the dilution that bothers folks?
Maybe I'm missing something here?
I find it hard to understand why an option holder would not have...
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Last
2.0¢ |
Change
-0.002(9.09%) |
Mkt cap ! $67.40M | |||
| Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
| 2.2¢ | 2.2¢ | 2.0¢ | $31.42K | 1.518M |
Buyers (Bids)
| No. | Vol. | Price($) |
|---|---|---|
| 32 | 8153107 | 2.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
| Price($) | Vol. | No. |
|---|---|---|
| 2.1¢ | 443000 | 3 |
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| MAY (ASX) Chart |